Wouldn't the drug have to bind to the receptor? And if it did bind, wouldn't that in reality activate (act as an agonist, within other words) it instead of acting as an antagonist? It is not the binding alone that activates a receptor. The binding of a molecule to a receptor cause it to change conformation, and the receptor is just activated if it change into the appropriate conformation.
Also, there are non-competitive receptor antagonists, which do not bind to the receptor at adjectives, but usually bind to the signal, keeping it from binding to the receptor.
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antagonist when bind to the receptors they brings up change within the conformation of the receptor and acts as a 1 scope messenger this initiates the 2 degree messenger molecule which within turn follows a specific pathway(signal transduction ) inside the cell . and this can bring upon metabollic or physiological changes within the cell, it may also result in the protein synthesis , secreation or stoping of any previous biological diversion of cell.
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